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A question on pension funds


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(First, an apology if this is the wrong forum for this subject, but general economics seemed to be the most apt area.)

If there are any pension fund insiders out there, my question is this:

If a DB pension scheme, with 0% annual revaluation of deferred benefits, supplied a transfer value in year x and then a second transfer value on the same day/month in year x+4, would the transfer value remain the same?

It's a synthetic question, I know, but the answer could help me wrestle with my former employer about some compensation I'm due.

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