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Andy77

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About Andy77

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  1. This site looked fairly good, but the 2 who have replied to me are unfortunately guessing, and I suspect this helps nobody. Guys, please at least check the facts before coming back with incorrect answers. I pay rent from the 28th each month as I moved in on the 28th. Of August. 2004! Nowhere in any tenancy agreement does it state that if you move in on e.g. the 28th, you can only end the tenancy on the 28th of a subsequent month. My agreement was a minimum 12 month term, and I have been there well in excess of those 12 months. Therefore all I need to give under the agreement is 1 months notice - therefore the agreement formally ends 1 month after I gave my notice. Had I been there less than 12 months, then yes, my agreement couldn't have finished until 28th August 2005 (i.e. 12 months after the commencement), but in this case I have to disagree both legally and logically with both answers. If you give 1 months notice anytime after 11 months, then the final month of your tenancy need not be a full calendar month, as long as you have given and served a full month's notice, e.g. if the notice is given after 11 and a half months, you don't forfeit the right to the rent for the last 2 weeks of month 13, as your notice will have expired by then!
  2. We've recently given our contractual 1 months notice on our assured shorthold tenancy, and after confirming it in writing to the landlords (a couple with 2 or 3 buy-to-let properties) we received a letter from the landlord saying that they are concerned about the condition of the property and will have it professionally cleaned at a cost to us of £120. We have written back saying that the property will be spotless when we leave (which is far better than it was when we moved in 2 years ago, and we have photos to prove this) but we are now concerned that they are just looking for random reasons to keep the deposit. My partner called the landlord, just to have a friendly chat before the letter arrived and to say that we would of course clean the flat before leaving, and was met with rude and ignorant behaviour from the landlord (the wife of the couple, who has always been thorny whereas the husband has been a very pleasant man). It is clear to me that she is the problem not him, but I guess that's beside the point. The only issue I am particularly concerned about is that we have 2 cats, and I think this is where I need advice, although the whole matter is of concern to me anyway. When we looked at the flat originally, we asked the letting agents if the tenancy was a "pet-friendly" one. They came back to us after a delay and told us that the landlords had agreed to let us have cats (we never hid this as we already had the cats, so why bother with the cloak and dagger stuff). We then stupidly signed a tenancy agreement which forbid us to have pets, on the basis that the letting agents had a letter from the landlord consenting to our having cats. When the landlord came round to the property to decorate shortly after we moved in, he was surprised by the cats and said it was forbidden by the tenancy agreement. We told him what the letting agents had said, and we had continued to chase them for the letter of consent, but clearly this letter had never existed. However, the landlord said he had cats himself and his wife and kids loved them, so he said jokingly that if they could all come round to see the cats he'd have no problem with them. They did, and everyone was happy, apart from the landlords and ourselves being very annoyed with the letting agents. This was back in September 2004. The letter that we have just received from the landlord however suggests that the "poor condition" of the flat may be as a result of the cats, and I feel that he may now be deciding to query our breach of the tenancy agreement just as a way to get some momey out of us, even though they have been round to the flat and seen the cats there several times since then. Does this constitute a form of consent that might override the tenancy agreement? Finally (thanks for staying with me this far!), our rent is paid from 28th to 27th of each month, and our tenancy ends on 21st. The landlord didn't amend the direct debit and so took the full month's rent for the final month, when it should have been apportioned and thus reduced by 6 days. When my partner called the landlord (the wife unfortunately), she denied all knowledge of any overpayment on our part. I personally think that this is outright theft, and that the money (£130) should be given back to us immediately, regardless of any final inspections, as it's nothing to do with the deposit... Any suggestions, help, advice etc would be greatly appreciated. Thanks Andy P.S. Rent is £650pcm, deposit was also £650, letting agents are no longer involved and solely dealt with letting and not management. Floors are wooden, so cats don't have carpets to ruin!
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