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NB8899

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About NB8899

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  1. "You might well be damned, it will depend entirely on whether the deposit is held by the agent as stakeholder or as agent for the landlord." For us novices, Mr. Crunch, could you explain what is the difference between the agent being as a stakeholder or as an agent for the LL. I know this sounds quite dumb, I'm guessing that as a stakeholder the agent might own some part of the property or s.th, yeh? So they've got more interest in its 'efficient' running. But... if the landlord is a multi-millionaire, and if the agent were working closely with him/ her over commission arrangements etc, surely none of them are going to be concerned with a peeved tenant. I wish wish wish, that I knew more of this murky world. Is it possible, for example, for an agency to sell building insurance to a landlord, when the landlord and the agency are managed by the same director? Where would the tenant be in that scenario then, with a fundamental problem in their accomodation then/ and where would they stand with regards to their deposit. Would the agent in that case also be the 'stakeholder' or an agent?! So many agencies of course, are family-run businesses.
  2. Hi, Property Investor - but under what circumstances would a partner be defined as a 'permitted occupier' and not a joint tenant. I had a similar quandary recently. I found a house to rent I liked the look of, but when I mentioned I had a partner, the agent said I would have to fill in two applications, in a blase way as if it was a usual thing. When he later handed in the forms to me he said as fast as he could that I would have to pay an additional 30 quid for the second application as well as my own (being 60). I sent him an e-mail later, as I hadn't been asked to do this under my two previous rental agreements, and my partner and I are now married. We also share the same bank account, collate our earnings and so on. For the last few months, I've been a full-time student again, and I didn't want to jeapordize the chance of finding a good property to rent, because of my own income (though my partner's is sufficient). But I think I'll have to forget the property unfortunately, and just see what the next estate agent says, but it would be useful to know basically what constitutes the difference between the two terms you just said. Nic.
  3. Hi, I am new to this forum, but I have been looking high and low for a place to get advice and experience from other renters like me, so I'm just going to plough on- but I'll spare you most of the gory details. When I came to visit a two bed flat, in a new-build in the East Midlands, I was told by the sales rep that the MD of the estate agent was married to the landlord, so was a 'special concern' of hers. I had at the time a couple of weeks till the end of my current rental agreement at that time, and when I mentioned this, the sales rep said that to reserve the property (take it off the market) I would have to pay the six months in advance. I didn't, but I think the request is significant - but please tell me, somebody, if you think I'm just mad! Well, as it turns out, the flat (ground-floor) is being affected by subsidence - a major crack having been spotted on the outside corner of the building where my flat is, and a leak under the ground of the bathroom (where pipes lie for the above flats) which, after lifting the plastic flooring, we have now found to have spread and developed over the whole of the bathroom floor. Before I discovered this, I was agonising over mould in the bathroom, which reappears every couple of weeks or so over the grouting, and other nooks, like wet moist molasses, and also up a cavity wall, behind which the same piping as before goes up. That's some of the gory stuff done. I'll try to be concise about the rest! Firstly, the 'married partner' of the landlord who works for the agency: she never refers to the spouse (& v.v); has a different surname/ different address; she is a company secreatry for the agency along with the landlord who is the director; her daughter ( or at least s.b. who has her surname) works as a receptionist and filters all incoming calls to the agency, and appears to have direct knowledge of properties. 2nd: for the address of the landlord for my contract, the agency's branch address is used/ and when an electrician's costs had to be invoiced to me, it was sent to me by a different company of the landlord, with a PO box address. My rent is sent by direct debit to this landlord's company, rather than the agency also. (3rd: based on hunches also, the previous tenants left in a rush, there being a HUGE pile of mail when we moved in. We are still getting gas/ water demands six months on. Amongst other queries, one predominates - because the landlord said that she had changed the floor of the bathroom from carpet to plastic flooring because they had also had problems. So she must have known before we moved in about the leak, and mould - breach of health and safety?.) As my only jury to date, could you tell me if I am MAD to think that the 'MD' of the agency and the landlord, are not married, and that it was a fudge to give us a sense of 'security', and a tax dodge mechanism to the agency, because they wouldn't have to put the agency's commision on the agent's tax books then. And was the contract unfair, having the agent's branch address under the landlord's name, thus not giving me any chance of redress if I had needed it. I have scoured the internet, and it is clear that it is illegal not to declare a personal interest in property that you are selling, but there is absolutely nothing about landlord-agency collusion. Does anyone have any experience?! N.
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